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Consider the following example:
Investment A is an open-end mutual fund selling for $1 a share that provides a total return of 10% a year on average, of which 6% is price appreciation and 4% of the NAV (or 4 cents a share) is an annual income distribution. If one were to invest $10,000 in this fund, he or she would have 10,000 shares, and after the average year's results (for simplicity, disregarding taxes and commissions or fees [or figuring most would be offset due to the purchase being a no-fee fund for a tax-deferred account]) the asset would be worth $10,600 and would have provided $400 of income, that is 4.00% of the $10,000 investment.
Investment B is a closed-end fund selling for $0.90 a share, i. e at a 10% discount to its NAV of $1 per share. It also provides a total return of 10% a year on average, of which 4% of the NAV (or 4 cents a share) is an annual income distribution. If one were to invest $10,000 in this fund, he or she would start with 11,111 shares ($10,000 divided by $0.90), and after an average year's returns the asset would be worth $10,600 and would have provided $444 of income, that is, 4.44% of the $10,000 investment.
In short, everything else being equal, the closed-end fund selling at a discount to its NAV provides an income advantage over open-end funds approximately equal to the percentage discount.
Due to the power of compounding of the principal, the differences in annual income distributions between the open- and closed-end funds would over time be significant.
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